On March 20, Russia’s RT News reported, “The US Department of Defense announced on Monday that it will send Ukraine another $350 million worth of military aid. The further supplies come as Ukraine reportedly gears up for a spring offensive, despite suffering heavy losses in Donbass. The package is the 34th tranche of military aid doled out to Ukraine by the US since August 2021. … The US has given Ukraine more than $32.5 billion in military aid since last February, out of more than $110 billion allocated by the administration of US President Joe Biden for military and economic assistance to Kiev.”
Some reader-comments there were against Russia’s Government, such as “Trish: What a disaster for Russia, the sooner Putin goes the better.” But others were instead against America’s Government, such as “TBTB: And the US says it is not party [to] the war? It instigated it with NATO expansion to Russia’s borders, a coup in Ukraine to install a neo-Nazi proxy regime, arming it, training it, financing it, providing it with war plans and intelligence, plus mercenaries and diplomatic support. If this is not being party to the conflict, at minimum, then when Russia hits back no one should be surprised. It is self-defense. It has already knocked out a US sophisticated spying drone that was collecting intelligence on live combat and passing it to its neo-Nazis to kill Russians.”
Whereas the comment from “Trish” is similar to many that I have read at U.S. news-sites, the one from “TBTB” is so fundamentally different from that American norm so that it raises the question as to whether it is reflecting information that appears on Russian news-sites but not on American ones. If that is the case, then why would that be so? Is it because the comment reflects realities that are hidden in U.S. news-media, or instead because it reflects non-realities that are prohibited to be published in the U.S.?
If it reflects realities that are hidden in U.S. news-media, then why would ANY realities be hidden in U.S. news-media? Should they be?
If it instead reflects non-realities that are prohibited to be published in the U.S., then who is doing this censorship and who ought to be legally authorized to make such censorship-decisions in the U.S.? Is there a severe need in the U.S. for new legislation which will delineate how news-censorship in the U.S. is to be done? Would it be best to continue the current legal standard in America that censorship in America is ONLY a private right of publishers, and NOT a right that America’s Government has? Since 95%+ of the news that Americans receive is from organizations that are controlled by America’s fewer-than-a-thousand billionaires, is almost all of the censorship in America being done on behalf of those fewer-than-a-thousand billionaires? If so, then how is that affecting U.S. politics and the Government itself?
America’s Founders, who wrote the U.S. Constitution including its First Amendment, gave no indication that when they wrote and the states passed into law the First Amendment, the objective was to give America’s richest one-hundred-thousandth of the U.S. population in the future the exclusive ultimate power to censor the news that the American public will be receiving.
Of course, this is an enormous problem in America if the reader-comment is entirely true that “The US … is not party the war? It instigated it with NATO expansion to Russia’s borders, a coup in Ukraine to install a neo-Nazi proxy regime, arming it, training it, financing it, providing it with war plans and intelligence, plus mercenaries and diplomatic support. If this is not being party to the conflict, at minimum, then when Russia hits back no one should be surprised. It is self-defense. It has already knocked out a US sophisticated spying drone that was collecting intelligence on live combat and passing it to its neo-Nazis to kill Russians.” That would then be a deeply and dangerously dysfunctional U.S. Government. Would it be an authentically Constitutional U.S. Government?
However, if that reader-comment is false, then why has no evidence been presented to the American public that each one of that comment’s clauses and assumptions is false? Would not even that indicate a very deep dysfunctionality to today’s American press? If the comment is false, why have all U.S. news-media not, in regard to each of its clauses, disclosed evidence that it is false?
Either way, have not America’s news-media failed? And, if the news-media have failed, then isn’t America’s Government even worse — and constantly violating its Constitution? Or: Did America’s Founders WANT there to be a widely deceived American public?The post Reader-Comments at Russia’s RT News and Censorship in America first appeared on Dissident Voice.
This content originally appeared on Dissident Voice and was authored by Eric Zuesse.